For what range of values of x is \(\frac{1}{2}\)x + \(\frac{1}{4}\) > \(\frac{1}{3}\)x + \(\frac{1}{2}\)?
The correct answer is B. x > \(\frac{3}{2}\)
To find the range of values of \(x\) for which \(\frac{1}{2}x + \frac{1}{4} > \frac{1}{3}x + \frac{1}{2}\), we need to solve the inequality step by step:
\(\frac{1}{2}x + \frac{1}{4} > \frac{1}{3}x + \frac{1}{2}\)
Subtract \(\frac{1}{3}x\) from both sides:
\(\frac{1}{2}x - \frac{1}{3}x + \frac{1}{4} > \frac{1}{2}\)
Combine the terms on the left side:
\(\frac{1}{6}x + \frac{1}{4} > \frac{1}{2}\)
Subtract \(\frac{1}{4}\) from both sides:
\(\frac{1}{6}x > \frac{1}{2} - \frac{1}{4}\)
Simplify the right side:
\(\frac{1}{6}x > \frac{1}{4}\)
Now, multiply both sides by 6 (which is positive, so the inequality direction doesn't change):
\(x > \frac{1}{4} \cdot 6\)
\(x > \frac{3}{2}\)
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